1. Body temperature exceeding 37.5 °C (99.1 °F) but less than 41.0 °C (105.8 °F) is termed

2. The first stage of physical assessment begins before the patient is seated. At this time, it can be determined that the patient does not have a communicable disease.

3. The technique of using the sense of touch to obtain information is termed

4. When the medical history includes a history of myocardial infarction, which assessment is used to determine when it is safe to provide oral care?

5. Which of the following categories in the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) risk classification describes a healthy client with no systemic disease?

6. Which ASA risk classification is appropriate for the patient who has a history of myocardial infarction but can perform vigorous, intense activity (10 metabolic equivalent [MET] functional capacity)?

7. When the health history reveals that the patient has had a prior unpleasant dental experience that has led to dental phobia, which of the following is the MOST likely potential emergency situation?

8. According to the Fourth Report on the Diagnosis, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure in Children and Adolescents, at which age should a child’s blood pressure be measured at health care appointments?

9. All of the following medical conditions are associated with hypertension EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

10. Under which category does a blood pressure reading of 126/86 mm Hg fall?

11. When evaluating respiration, the clinician should observe all of the following factors EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

12. When nasal congestion is present, which oral procedure would MOST compromise the airway?

13. The patient is a 10-year-old who presents with a body temperature of 100.5°F. Treatment considerations for this patient include

14. During a medical emergency, the pulse should be taken from which artery?

15. All of the following are risk factors in the development of type II diabetes mellitus (T2DM) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

16. Your client presents with a blood pressure (BP) of 165/102 mm Hg, right arm, sitting. Treatment considerations include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

17. Blood pressure (BP) classifications in pediatric individuals are based on all of these factors EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

18. Indurated, movable retroauricular lymph nodes suggest examination of which area for etiology?

19. Submandibular lymph nodes are best examined by

20. All of the following techniques will detect the presence of cysts or lymphadenopathy during the extraoral examination of the neck EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

21. The presence of cystic acne indicates the probable finding of which microorganism?

22. A periodontal infection surrounding tooth #24 would be related to which condition?

23. An objective abnormal finding during the head and neck examination that can be identified by a health care professional is called a symptom. A patient report of pain is a good example of a symptom.

24. During examination of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), all of the following are issues to be considered EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

25. When the oral cavity exhibits a reduction of saliva, all of the following are potential findings EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

26. Examination of breath odors is a component of all of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

27. Which area of the tongue has the greatest predisposition to development of carcinoma?

28. Palpation of the lymph nodes during the head and neck examination reveals all of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

29. During oral examination, the patient is asked to occlude the teeth and swallow. What is the reason for this?

30. A lesion that is attached by a stemlike or stalklike base is described as

31. All of the following are evidence-based risk factors for periodontal disease EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

32. Periodontal disease is associated with the following obligate, anaerobic, gram-negative bacteria EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

33. Which drug has been associated with improved periodontal tissue health?

34. Which factor is the STRONGEST predictor of future clinical attachment loss?

35. Current salivary genetic deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) tests for periodontal disease (PD) are prognostic tests. These tests can be used to diagnose PD.

36. Examination of the periodontium reveals localized probe depths between 4 and 5 millimeters (mm), but the tissue do not bleed on probing. All of the following factors should be considered in any determination of this finding EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

37. All of the following are components of a periodontal examination EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

38. Which of the following instruments is used to assess implants for peri-implantitis?

39. Periodontal screening and recording (PSR), a procedure for periodontal screening, has all of the following components EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

40. A tooth with a 2-mm recession of gingival margin has a 3-mm probe depth. What is the degree of clinical attachment loss?

41. During periodontal examination, the probe tip is placed on the tooth or root surface and walked into which area of the periodontium?

42. Gingival crevicular fluid comes from which tissue?

43. A 4-mm probe depth of the junctional epithelium at the cementoenamel junction (CEJ) is referred to as a

44. Generalized aggressive periodontitis affects permanent first molars, incisors, or both. Localized aggressive periodontitis affects most teeth.

45. The alveolar mucosa is separated from the alveolar gingiva at which anatomic landmark?

46. In which area of the gingiva is a mucogingival junction (MGJ) absent?

47. Which feature differentiates periodontitis from gingivitis?

48. Which is a non–plaque-induced gingival lesion?

49. Cratered and missing gingival papillae are indicative of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

50. Which palpation method is used to examine the floor of the mouth?

51. A yellow nodule in the vestibule, lateral to tooth #18, is discovered during a clinical examination. Which examination method would be used to gain more information?

52. During intraoral examination, a pedunculated, solid lesion of normal color with a smooth surface texture is observed along the line of occlusion on the buccal mucosa. Which would be the FIRST choice in a differential diagnosis?

53. During examination for abnormalities of the extraoral or intraoral structures, which of the following is essential?

54. Which of the following poses an increased risk for root caries?

55. A patient who displays the typical signs of traumatic occlusion is likely to have radiographic and clinical signs that demonstrate all of the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

56. All of the following statements about smoking and periodontal disease are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

57. When a patient is identified as being at high risk for caries during oral examination, which of the following strategy is NOT recommended by the American Dental Association (ADA) for primary prevention of caries?

58. Components of the intraoral examination of the floor of the mouth include assessment of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

59. Symptoms of active TB include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

60. Blood in the sputum of an individual infected with TB represents

61. All of the following are examples of an elevated lesion EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

62. Which term characterizes an outward growth?

63. A radiographically evident lesion or mass that extends beyond the boundaries of one distinct area and has many parts is called

64. A cytologic smear of the oral mucosa is a technique used to histologically examine

65. Given a history of bruxism and the dental examination revealing flat occlusal surfaces, which muscle would be expected to be prominent when examining the face?

66. The presence of extra teeth beyond the normal complement is known as

67. Which of the following is a supernumerary tooth?

68. A tooth with a normal crown but wide and elongated pulp extending into the root is an example of

69. A cervical stress-related defect manifesting as a wedge-shaped defect is called an

70. The MOST effective means for detecting occlusal caries is the

71. In an assessment of the deciduous dentition, tooth #E is the

72. The relationship of occlusal surfaces that provide for maximal intercuspation when teeth are occluded is

73. According to Black’s classification, occlusal caries on cusp tips is an example of what class of caries?

74. Signs of occlusal trauma include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

75. Directing a strong light through tooth surfaces for diagnostic information is an example of

76. An examination of the occlusion reveals a normal canine-to-molar relationship and crowded mandibular anterior teeth. This is described as

77. Hypoplasia of the enamel is associated with which congenital condition or disease?

78. Grooves or pits in enamel corresponding with the stage of tooth development is a condition described as

79. In class II, division 1 occlusion, which teeth are protruded?

80. Attrition of tooth surfaces is influenced by which habit?

81. White spot lesions are described as

82. Factors that increase the risk for development of early childhood caries includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

83. Which teeth are generally affected first in early childhood caries?

84. Parafunctional habits include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?