1. Select the four most important items to disclose to a patient while gaining informed consent.

2. All of the following are examples of correct principles of informed consent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

3. Which law (enacted in 1992) gives individuals the right to know why they were denied for credit and the name of the credit bureau that supplied the information?

4. Select the four elements that must be present to qualify an action as negligent.

5. All of the following exemplify legal competence EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

6. The Hazard Communications Standard is also called the “Employer Right to Know” standard. It requires employee access to hazardous materials information.

7. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is the government agency charged with creating the expertise, information, and tools that people and communities need to protect their health. OSHA objectives include health promotion, prevention of disease, injury and disability, and preparedness for new health threats. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is the government agency charged with assurance of safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education, and assistance.

8. Match the regulation with its purpose.

9. OSHA bloodborne pathogen training and education on the hazards of body fluid and protective measures used to minimize occupation exposures is required at all of the following times EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

10. All of the following statements regarding OSHA’s HAZMAT are correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

11. Universal precautions is the term for procedures developed to avoid contact with blood and blood-contaminated, potentially infectious body fluids. Engineering controls is the expanded concept that all bodily fluids except sweat are potentially infectious.

12. Enforcing practice codes, establishing standards, and enforcing sanctions against incompetent practitioners, to protect the health and safety of the public, are the purposes of

13. The dental hygienist may legally perform the duties or functions allowed in that particular state. If the individual is trained and licensed in another state where the practice act is more expansive, it is also permissible to perform those expanded functions in both states.

14. The concept “Do No Harm” is known as

15. Which term is also known as the principle of truthfulness?

16. Promising patients treatment outcomes that might not be achievable is known as

17. Defamation is a false communication that harms a person’s reputation. It may be either slander (written communication) or libel (verbal communication).

18. The dental treatment record is a comprehensive, ongoing file of assessment findings, treatment services rendered, outcomes, notations, and patient contacts. Entries in the dental record should be signed and dated.

19. Select the factors that minimize the risk of litigation for a dental care provider. (Select all that apply.)

20. A dental hygienist does not move the ultrasonic cords out of the way, and the patient accidently trips, falls, and is harmed when leaving the treatment area. The hygienist is guilty of

21. Administering a fluoride treatment without obtaining the patient’s consent is considered

22. The patient has an artificial heart valve requiring prophylactic premedication before the dental hygiene appointment and does not take the medication because of an upset stomach. The dental hygienist fails to ask if the patient has taken the premedication, and the patient develops infective endocarditis. The dental hygienist is guilty of

23. To avoid charges of patient abandonment, a dental office is required to do all of the following actions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

24. Match each legal term below with the MOST likely corresponding type of law.

25. Scopes of practice for care vary by state. Licensed dental hygienists are not permitted to perform any procedure that can be legally delegated to a nonlicensed provider such as a dental assistant.

26. The dental hygienist accidentally uses latex gloves on a patient with a latex allergy, and the patient has a severe allergic reaction. Which action has the dental hygienist committed? (Select all that apply.)

27. Providing written evaluation of the extent of achievement of patient-centered goals is considered a legal risk management strategy. Failure to evaluate the outcome of care may be grounds for negligence.

28. The founding principle of all health care professions is

29. Teaching careful oral hygiene self-care is an example of promoting good. “Doing good” for patients describes the principle of veracity.

30. The dental hygienist may refuse to provide a service requested by the patient if that service is in conflict with the standards of patient care. Although this decision conflicts with patient’s autonomy, it is within the dental hygienist’s autonomy and ethical responsibility.

31. Placing the welfare of a child suspected of child abuse over the autonomy of the parent is an example implementing the duty of prima facie. The welfare of the child is a stronger duty than preserving the parent’s right to autonomy.

32. Practicing dental hygiene without a license is considered

33. If the husband of a patient contacts the dental office to request information regarding his wife’s health history so that he can accurately fill out insurance forms, it is permissible to share that information with the husband because the couple is married. Sharing patient information with family is a violation of confidentiality.

34. Compensatory damages are damages which are added when gross carelessness or negligence causes injury. Compensatory damages are usually covered by liability insurance.

35. When a dental hygiene malpractice suit is a civil action, the level of proof required is called a preponderance of evidence. A preponderance of evidence requires that the jury or judge must be 51% certain of guilt or innocence.

36. Advising the patient of the benefits, risks, and expected outcomes of their proposed treatment plan, prior to obtaining the informed consent, promotes which of the following ethical principles?

37. The dentist proposes a full mouth series of radiographs as part of a patient’s treatment plan. The patient questions the dental hygienist about the need for and the safety of radiography. The hygienist educates the patient about dental radiography and answers all of the patient’s questions honestly. Which ethical principle is the hygienist upholding?

38. Which gesture or expression demonstrates respect for a patient’s cultural background in the dental hygiene process of care?

39. The OSHA protects the dental professional by

40. All of the following are functions of a state dental board EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

41. Which is the BEST description of a Dental Practice Act?

42. Which type of supervision requires prior diagnosis of the patient’s condition, authorization of a procedure by a dentist, and the presence of a supervising dentist on the premises?

43. Which federal act protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs?

44. Which of the following terms is applied to providing a level of care that a reasonably prudent practitioner would exercise practicing under the rules and regulations of the state practice act?

45. Patients must be informed of proposed treatment, risks, options, and nature of the disease or problem before the health care professional can proceed with treatment. Informed consent is mandated by the HIPAA.

46. Which of the following BEST defines professional ethics?

47. It is the responsibility of the professional to obtain informed consent before providing treatment. If care is modified, it is not necessary to obtain informed consent again.

48. Discussing a patient’s medical history with a co-worker violates which ethical principle?

49. The dental hygienist who participates in life-long learning, attends continuing education courses, and stays current with advances in the field of dentistry and dental hygiene is upholding which ethical principle?

50. Reciprocity is when a state grants licensure, usually without further testing, to an individual who is already licensed in another state. Individuals must apply for reciprocity in another state within the first 10 years after becoming first licensed.

51. Which of the following terms refers to time restrictions during which legal proceedings may be initiated?

52. All of the following are addressed in the Patient’s Bill of Rights EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

53. The primary purpose of reporting suspected cases of child abuse is to protect the child from further abuse. Dental hygienists are required to report known or suspected cases of child abuse.

54. Malpractice is defined as

55. Misdemeanors and felonies are examples of civil law and involve crimes against persons or property. Civil offenses only result in monetary damages or compensation.

56. Which patient requires a signed informed refusal after being educated by the health care provider about the possible consequences of refusal? (Select all that apply.)

57. Which of the following BEST defines jurisprudence?

58. An act of omission is a form of malpractice in which the practitioner commits an act that causes harm or injury to the patient. An act of commission is a form of malpractice in which the practitioner fails to act properly to prevent harm.

59. The American Dental Hygienists’ Association (ADHA) Code of Ethics

60. If a dental hygienist falsifies information on the dental hygiene license renewal application, the state board may do which actions? (Select all that apply.)

61. A dental hygienist tries to reschedule a patient’s appointment with another hygienist because she does not like to treat “old people.” What is the hygienist guilty of?

62. Which of the following protects individuals with disabilities from employment discrimination?

63. A patient has a toothache and schedules an appointment with a dentist. By making the appointment the patient gives consent for the dentist to make a diagnosis and offer treatment. This scenario exemplifies

64. Being accountable for one’s own actions is assuming

65. A dental hygienist accidently mounts a radiograph backward, and the dentist does not notice this error. The dentist extracts tooth #30 instead of tooth #19. This is an example of

66. Which of the following defines an ethical dilemma?

67. A complete dental chart should include the patient’s identification data, consent forms, updated medical and dental histories, clinical assessment and diagnosis, treatment notes, radiographs, and copies of any correspondence with dental specialists or medical practitioners. Failure to keep accurate and complete patient records is considered malpractice.

68. Failure to refer a patient who has aggressive periodontal disease and severe bone loss represents which concept?

69. Who owns a patient’s chart and radiographs?

70. Which of the following would be appropriate for correction of an error recorded in the treatment notes by the dental hygienist?

71. Which agency or group should a dental hygienist contact regarding a sexual harassment complaint?

72. The dental state practice act regulates the practice of dentistry and specifies the legal requirements for licensure because its primary purpose is to protect the public from incompetent health care providers.

73. Which of the following terms refers to an effort to understand the language, culture, and behavior of diverse individuals and groups?

74. Which of the following policies will NOT reduce the risk of malpractice allegations?

75. Which party or entity establishes the rules and regulations that determine the scope of practice for a dental hygienist?

76. All of the following are examples of professional misconduct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

77. Good communication with the patient is the best defense against malpractice claims because patients are less likely to initiate a lawsuit when they have a clear understanding of proposed treatment plans and any potential treatment complications.

78. The dental hygienist may perform an action that is unethical yet is still legal. However, it is not possible to perform an action that is illegal and is still ethical.

79. Which of the following is an example of an intentional tort?

80. Which of the following BEST describes the ethical principle of nonmaleficence?

81. Patient autonomy allows the patient to make decisions about the treatment received. If a patient chooses a treatment option that is consistent with standards of care, but not what the dental professional recommends, the professional does not have to provide the treatment.

82. Which of the following statements represents an example of when it is legal to require a pregnant applicant to undergo medical evaluation?

83. A dental hygienist finds an area on the lateral border of the tongue that is suspicious for oral cancer. The hygienist tells the patient about it and suggests a treatment which she is not qualified to perform and which could potentially cause harm to the patient. This violates which ethical principle?

84. The patient refuses to take the prescribed prophylactic premedication required before dental hygienist treatment. The dental hygienist’s decision not to treat the patient exemplifies

85. Which of the following BEST represents the most valid way to make evidence-based treatment decisions?

86. When a patient allows the lead apron to be put in place before radiographic examination, it is considered an expressed contract. When the patient signs the paperwork presented during a sedation consultation, it is considered an implied contract.