Pharmacology
QUESTIONS
1. For each drug listed, select the most closely linked mechanism of action from the list provided.
| Drug | Mechanism of Action |
| 1. Lisinopril (Zestril) | A. Blocks angiotensin II receptors |
| 2. Diazepam (Valium) | B. Bind to mu-, kappa-, and delta-receptors in the central nervous system (CNS) and spinal cord |
| 3. Ibuprofen (Motrin) | C. Produces vascular smooth muscle relaxation throughout the body |
| 4. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) | D. Inhibits the reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubule |
| 5. Nifedipine (Procardia) | E. Stimulates both alpha- and beta-receptors |
| 6. Lovastatin (Mevacor) | F. Facilitates the action of the neurotransmitter gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) |
| 7. Epinephrine | G. Inhibits the movement of calcium during the contraction of cardiac and vascular smooth muscles |
| 8. Candesartan (Atacand) | H. Inhibits 3-hydroxy-3- methyl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase |
| 9. Codeine | I. Blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II |
| 10. Nitroglycerin (Nitrobid) | J. Inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase |
2. For each drug listed, select the most closely linked side effects from the list provided.
| Drug | Side Effects |
| 1. Tetracycline | A. Gingival enlargement |
| 2. Aspirin | B. Severe xerostomia |
| 3. Metronidazole hydrochloride (HCl) (Flagyl) | C. Cognitive impairment |
| 4. Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) | D. Drug hypersensitivity in 1 in 10 individuals |
| 5. Propranolol (Inderal) | E. Photosensitivity |
| 6. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) | F. Disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol |
| 7. Benztropine (Cogentin) | G. Tinnitus |
| 8. Phenytoin (Dilantin) | H. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate |
| 9. Diazepam (Valium) | I. Bronchoconstriction |
| 10. Penicillin (PenVK) | J. Hepatotoxicity |
3. Aspirin is approved to treat each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
4. Which beverage should not be given concurrently with tetracycline?
5. Antiinflammatory, antipyretic, and analgesic effects are associated with which drug?
6. Patients taking metronidazole hydrochloride (HCl) (Flagyl) should be advised to avoid which substance?
7. Each of the following is a characteristic of an ideal local anesthetic EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
8. Epinephrine is combined with a local anesthetic to
A enhance systemic local anesthetic absorption.
B prolong the duration of action of the local anesthetic.
9. Extrapyramidal adverse effects caused by phenothiazine antipsychotic drugs
10. Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are less sedating than their predecessors in therapeutic doses because they
A bind only to histamine 2 (H2)-receptors.
B do not penetrate the blood–brain barrier.
C are combined with decongestants for their central nervous system (CNS) stimulant activity.
11. Albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) is a short-acting beta 2-agonist that can be administered via a metered-dose inhaler. Albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) is recommended as an emergency treatment for dental patients who experience in-office asthma attacks.
C The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
12. Patients who have been prescribed ipratropium bromide (Atrovent), an anticholinergic drug for the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) should be instructed to do what after each inhaler use?
A Rinse with water, swish, and swallow after each inhalation
B Rinse with water, swish, and expectorate after each inhalation
C Rinse with water, swish, expectorate, and brush after each inhalation
D Rinse with water, swish, expectorate, and brush after the morning inhalation only
13. When using an EpiPen, the dosage for an adult will be metered in which milligram increments?
14. Each of the following is a possible side effect of an anticholinergic drug EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
15. Which drug is used to prevent an attack of gout?
16. Which drug should NOT be given to a patient with a true allergy to codeine?
17. Which drug is commonly used as an antitussive?
18. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnant patients?
19. Each of the following agents has good absorption through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
20. All of the following drugs would be contraindicated in patients with peptic ulcers EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
21. Which general anesthetic may cause respiratory acidosis with deeper levels of anesthesia?
22. Which is the shortest-acting barbiturate?
23. Beriberi is caused by a severe deficiency of
24. Which drug is associated with xerostomia?
25. All of the following are characteristics of xylitol EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A It inhibits the attachment of biofilm to teeth.
B It prevents the transmission of oral bacteria from mother to child.
C It reduces the levels of Streptococcus mutans in saliva and plaque.
D It is bactericidal to Streptococcus mutans in saliva and plaque.
26. Which drug is a common calcium channel blocker?
27. In addition to treatment of tonic-clonic and partial seizure disorders, carbamazepine (Tegretol) is also used in the treatment of
28. Lithium (Eskalith, Lithobid) is commonly used in the treatment of
29. Which agent is an autocoid known for stimulating secretion from salivary glands?
30. Glucocorticoids should NOT be used to treat
31. Which oral antidiabetic agent needs to be administered for 6 to 14 weeks to reach its maximal therapeutic effect?
32. Which drug is used to manage the nausea and vomiting caused by antineoplastic therapy?
33. Which agent is used to treat ONLY allergen-induced asthma?
34. Which of the following drugs is the BEST choice for treating an opioid overdose?
35. Which of the following is the BEST choice of local anesthetic when performing a dental procedure on a pregnant patient?
36. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) achieves anesthesia primarily by acting at which sites?
37. The drug metronidazole (Flagyl) is most useful in therapy for which oral condition?
38. Two cartridges of lidocaine (Xylocaine; 2% with 1:100,000 epinephrine) are to be administered to a dental patient. The patient is also receiving treatment for hypertension. What is the maximum safe dosage of epinephrine?
39. In a patient suffering from chronic dry mouth (xerostomia) caused by Sjögren disease with some salivary gland function remaining, which drug would be MOST effective in stimulating salivary flow?
40. The patient reports taking lisinopril (Prinivil) on the medication history. Each of the following is an indication for lisinopril (Prinivil) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
41. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has indicated that the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) should be 3000 mg. Which is the major toxicity concern for acetaminophen that prompted this reduced dose?
42. Which analgesic drug reduces blood clotting for the longest period?
43. Which drug’s antimicrobial action is based on its ability to inhibit cross-linking of the peptidoglycan chains in bacterial cell walls?
44. Drugs that inhibit hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG CoA) reductase are often used to treat which type of disorder?
A Arrhythmias (e.g., atrial fibrillation)
C Blood lipid disorders (e.g., hypercholesterolemia)
45. Which drug has the MOST potent antiinflammatory effect?
46. The patient has recently been prescribed a drug by a neurologist to treat a painful jaw. The pain was sharp and intermittent and seemed to be triggered by the slightest touch. The patient could not remember the name of the disorder, but it was explained to the patient that the prescribed “pain killer” was an antiepileptic drug used for this type of pain. Which would be the most likely drug prescribed?
47. A patient being treated for xerostomia with pilocarpine (Salagen) is most likely to experience which side effect?
48. Which drug most effectively blocks the itching, pain, and swelling from histamine released in the skin?
49. Each of these drugs is used to treat asthma EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
50. The antipsychotic effect of thioridazine (Mellaril) is largely caused by which mechanism in the brain?
A Blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin
B Blocking sodium channels in nerves
C Blocking calcium channels in nerves
D Enhancing the effect of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) on chloride channels
51. A patient who has asthma and has been taking oral theophylline (Theolair) for several months develops an acute infection in the oral cavity. Since the patient reports an allergy to penicillin, oral erythromycin ethylsuccinate (E.E.S.), at a dose of 400 mg four times a day, is prescribed. Two days later, the patient begins to feel ill, reporting dizziness, nervousness, confusion, nausea and vomiting, and rapid heart rate. Which is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms?
A Erythromycin inhibited the renal excretion of theophylline.
B Erythromycin enhanced the gastric absorption of theophylline.
C Theophylline increased the affinity of erythromycin at the site of action.
D Theophylline decreased the excretion of erythromycin.
E Erythromycin inhibited the hepatic metabolism of theophylline.
52. Which major neurotransmitter in autonomic ganglia leads to a rapid excitatory postsynaptic potential?
53. Sumatriptan (Imitrex, Alsuma) is a drug that is commonly used to treat which disorder?
54. Which of the following BEST describes the mechanism of action of phentolamine?
Stay updated, free dental videos. Join our Telegram channel
VIDEdental - Online dental courses
