23: Component A

Component A

image Answers and rationales for the Component A review questions are located on this text’s companion Evolve website. See inside front cover for details.

Component A Review Questions and Testlets of the Simulated National Board Dental Hygiene Examination (sometimes referred to as the AM portion, taken in the morning on examination day) are not based solely on information provided in the chapters of this book.

Simulated National Board Dental Hygiene Examination—Component a Review Questions

1. The type of epithelial tissue that is found in the oral cavity is called:

2. The cellular part of the blood that caries oxygen but does not contain a nucleus comprises the:

3. The nasal septum is composed of:

4. What bones form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

5. The articulating surface of the condyle rotates within the:

6. A circular structure in the cell that contains powerful digestive enzymes and acts as a scavenger is the:

7. The localized entrapment of pathogens from a dental infection in a closed tissue space is called:

8. Which tooth is known for its bifurcated root?

9. Which of the following permanent teeth occlude with only one tooth in the opposite arch, assuming ideal relations exist?

10. The junction of three surfaces on the crown of a tooth is referred to as:

11. In which one of the following processes does Meckel’s cartilage form?

12. Which cusp on permanent molars generally is the one that gets progressively smaller as you go posterior in the arch?

13. During which stage of tooth development can macrodontia and microdontia occur?

14. The muscles of facial expression and taste are controlled by cranial nerve:

15. To which salivary gland does the external carotid artery supply blood?

16. An individual with type AB blood can give a transfusion to an individual with:

17. Cardiac output is the product of:

18. All of the following are a function of the pancreas EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

19. Functions of the adult liver include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

20. What is the difference between renal physiology and nephrology?

21. Two thirds of the body’s water is found in:

22. How many 8-ounce glasses of water per day should the average adult drink?

23. What is the amount of extra calories a woman needs during the first trimester of pregnancy?

24. A chemical, biologic, or physical agent that causes birth defects is known as a:

25. Common allergic foods include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

26. Protein, fat, and starch digestion takes place primarily in the:

27. Anorexics are commonly deficient in:

28. Periodontal pathogens are communicable. Research shows that destructive periodontal microorganisms can be passed between parent and child and between spouses through saliva.

29. All of the following are necessary criteria for bacteria to infect the periodontium EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

30. The type of bacterium that plays an important role in tissue destruction seen in periodontitis, has a double cell wall, and whose outer membrane contains endotoxins is:

31. The attraction of new bacteria to previously attached bacteria is referred to as:

32. Factors that enable bacteria to colonize, invade, and damage tissues are referred to as _________ factors:

33. The two main inorganic minerals found in supragingival calculus are:

34. Bacterial organisms stain differently on the basis of:

35. Which type of immunity may be immediately provided to a dental hygienist following an accidental curet laceration of the finger accident during hand-activated instrumentation (scaling)?

36. A combination of antibody and antigen is:

37. In which type of immunopathologic disease are the cells of the body no longer tolerated and the immune system treats them as antigens?

38. What type of lymphocyte matures in the thymus, produces lymphokines, and can affect the humoral immune response?

39. All of the following is an example of retrograde cellular change EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

40. A malignant tumor of bone forming tissue is called:

41. The main difference between a verucca vulgaris and a papilloma is that:

42. All wounds are subject to certain complications. Which of the following dangers should be given first consideration?

43. Which of the following cells would be the predominant cell seen in an acute inflammatory reaction?

44. Deposition of calcium salts in a tooth that is either a response to age or is caused by a stimulus is called pulp calcification. When this occurs in the pulp cavities, this is a:

45. A carious lesion of the first lower permanent molar is observed and a mass of tissue is protruding from the large cavity opening. The client is 10 years old and has no symptoms. What is the mass of tissue called?

46. Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes:

47. On x-ray examination, a radiolucent, pear-shaped lesion is found distal to a client’s maxillary right lateral incisor causing divergence of the lateral and canine roots. The lesion is probably a(an):

48. Odontogenic keratocysts are of particular clinical importance because they:

49. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:

50. When reviewing a dentigerous cyst on a radiograph, the radiolucent area will:

51. Which one of the following is MOST characteristic of nitrous oxide abuse?

52. Which one of the following when taken with antacids can result in a decrease in intestinal absorption of the medication?

53. When epinephrine is added to a local anesthetic agent, all of the following occur EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

54. Which one of the following drugs can increase the risk for developing oral candidiasis?

55. All of the following are side effects associated with oral contraceptives EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

56. The ceiling dose (effect) relates significantly to:

57. Side effects of calcium channel blocking agents include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

58. Which one of the following drugs is NOT used for reducing anxiety?

59. When one drug reduces the absorption of another drug, what is a common strategy to minimize the interaction?

60. Overuse of nasal decongestant sprays can cause __________.

61. All of the following are lesions palpable during an intraoral exam EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

62. During treatment of a client with compromised pulmonary function, all of the following must be done EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

63. Tachycardia is characterized by an increase in:

64. Dental biofilm that is capable of demineralizing tooth structure is referred to as:

65. Which of the following factors may increase the risk of bradycardia?

66. The gingival col area is particularly susceptible to destruction because of:

67. The MOST common cause of tooth mobility is caused by:

68. Which of the following BEST describes bruxism?

69. Which fibers of the principal fiber group run from the alveolar crest to cementum just below the cemento-enamel junction (CEJ)?

70. A fluid-filled skin elevation, which is 1cm or less in diameter and contains serum or mucin, is BEST described as a:

71. Class II occlusion is a molar relationship of the:

72. During the client’s periodontal evaluation, the hygienist detects a furcation on tooth #30 and notes that the Nabers probe enters into the furcation area and penetrate through to the opposite side, however, the furcation is still covered with soft tissue. This type of furcation involvement is classified as:

a. Class I

b. Class II

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Jan 1, 2015 | Posted by in Dental Hygiene | Comments Off on 23: Component A
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