1. A mixed tumour of parotid salivary gland origin is most likely to exhibit
a. Early ulceration
b. Early metastasis
c. Rapid growth
d. Slow growth
2. A 0.7 cm, pedunculated, white, rough surface growth occurring on the hard palate is most likely to be
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Papilloma
d. Fibroma
3. Moeller glossitis is associated with the deficiency of
a. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin B6
c. Niacin
d. Riboflavin
4. The formation of secondary dentine is stimulated by
a. Trauma
b. Fluorosis
c. Hypervitaminosis
d. Systemic infectious disease
5. Which of the following syndromes is associated with the predisposition to oral and pharyngeal carcinoma?
a. Gardner syndrome
b. Sjogren syndrome
c. Peutz–Jeghers syndrome
d. Plummer–Vinson syndrome
6. Which of the following is an allergic type of gingivitis
a. Scorbutic gingivitis?
b. Plasma cell gingivitis
c. Dilantin-induced gingivitis
d. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
7. An epulis fissuratum is most similar clinically and microscopically to which of the following lesions?
a. Neurofibroma
b. Giant cell granuloma
c. Irritation fibroma
d. Odontogenic fibroma
8. Which of the following structures are usually NOT affected in patients with hereditary ectodermal dysplasia?
a. Teeth
b. Sweat glands
c. Hair follicle
d. Salivary glands
9. Which of the following diseases will not cause vesicles or bullae of mucous membrane?
a. Pemphigus
b. Herpes zoster
c. Lupus erythematosus
d. Erythema multiforme
10. Intrinsic staining of teeth may be seen in each of the following except
a. Porphyria
b. Erythroblastosis foetalis
c. Tetracycline therapy
d. Amelogenesis imperfecta
1. d
2. c
3. a
4. a
5. d
6. b
7. c
8. d
9. c
10. d
11. Sloughing of necrotic epithelium is seen in
a. Aspirin bum
b. Traumatic ulcer
c. Denture sore mouth
d. Contact stomatitis
12. During parotidectomy which of the following complication may result from injury to auriculotemporal nerve?
a. Facial paralysis
b. Gustatory sweating
c. Orolingual paraesthesia
d. Trigeminal neuralgia
13. A 30-year-old man has a 1 × 1.5 cm pedunculated lesion on the soft palate, which has a rough, warty surface and is of the same colour as the adjacent mucosa. Appropriate management of this lesion is to
a. Perform an incisional biopsy
b. Perform an excisional biopsy
c. Scrape for exfoliative cytology
d. Observe for 2 weeks then biopsy
14. The odontogenic tumour frequently found in young adults and associated with an unerupted tooth in the anterior portion of maxilla is
a. Odontogenic myxoma
b. Ameloblastic fibroma
c. Cementifying fibroma
d. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour
15. Which of the following dental findings is frequently observed in cases of Paget disease?
a. Hypercementosis
b. Apical root resorption
c. Internal resorption of pulp
d. Widening of PDL space
16. Which of the following pigments imparts a bluish purple colour to an oral mucosal lesion?
a. Haemosiderin
b. Melanin
c. Haemoglobin
d. Graphite
17. A pigmented area that blanches under pressure on placing a glass slide over it is most likely to be
a. Petechiae
b. Melanoma
c. Amalgam tattoo
d. Haemangioma
18. Bronzing of the skin with patchy melanosis of the oral mucosa is seen in
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Addison disease
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Acromegaly
19. Which of the following has premalignant potential?
a. Smoker’s melanosis
b. Nicotinic stomatitis
c. Actinic cheilitis
d. Leukoedema
20. Which of the following papillae of tongue are elongated in hairy tongue?
a. Circumvallate papillae
b. Fungiform papillae
c. Filiform papillae
d. All of the above
21. All of the following laboratory values are elevated in Paget disease except
a. Serum calcium
b. Serum alkaline phosphatase
c. Urinary hydroxyproline
d. Serum phosphorus
22. The common complication of surgical removal of nasopalatal cyst is
a. Recurrence
b. Facial paralysis
c. Epistaxis
d. Paraesthesia of palate
23. Cotton-wool appearance on a radiograph is seen in
a. Florid osseous dysplasia
b. Paget disease
c. Chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis
d. All of the above
24. All of the following are features of Gardner syndrome except
a. Multiple osteomas
b. Desmoid tumours
c. Multiple unerupted teeth
d. Perioral papillomatosis
25. The term ‘lumpy jaw’ is used to denote
a. Trismus
b. Tetanus
c. Actinomycosis
d. Ludwig’s angina
11. a
12. b
13. d
14. d
15. a
16. c
17. d
18. b
19. c
20. b
21. d
22. d
23. d
24. d
25. c
26. HSV-1 causes all of the following conditions except
a. Oral and pharyngeal infections
b. Genital infections
c. Meningoencephalitis
d. Dermatitis above the waist
27. The incubation period for primary oral herpes infection is
a. 1–2 days
b. 5–7 days
c. 10–14 days
d. 1–2 months
28. The vesicles of herpes zoster have all the following characteristics except
a. Bilaterally symmetrical appearance
b. Appear in clusters
c. Appear along the course of the nerve
d. Preceded by shooting pain along the nerve
29. Ramsay Hunt syndrome is due to herpes zoster involving the
a. Trigeminal ganglion
b. Glossopharyngeal ganglion
c. Geniculate ganglion
d. Otic ganglion
30. Most severe form of erythema multiforme is
a. Stevens–Johnson syndrome
b. Gardner syndrome
c. Lyell disease
d. Noonan syndrome
31. ANUG is caused by
a. Treponema
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. All of the above
32. The common fever blister is
a. Recurrent aphthous ulcer
b. Recurrent herpes labialis
c. Stevens–Johnson syndrome
d. Thermal burn
33. Nikolsky sign is positive in
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Epidermolysis bullosa
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
34. Paraneoplastic pemphigus is most frequently associated with
a. Nonhodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
c. Thymoma
d. All of the above
35. The most common site of involvement of mucous membrane pemphigoid is
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